Comment/reply from: joshnickels, United Kingdom, Belfast
Posted: 2015-05-11 07:43:27
Yes I reckon it does xxx
Comment/reply from: smukotzie, Zimbabwe, Bulawayo
Posted: 2015-08-08 22:42:40
Most likely much later. As they age, they produce more testosterone than progesterone. Remembering that testosterone is responsible for urges, the peak of testosterone should therefore coincide with urges. That should therefore be around menopause. Outwardly, testosterone shows with more hair hair, especially facial hair, and a deeper voice.
Comment/reply from: KJ, United Kingdom,
Posted: 2018-01-16 22:47:25
Interesting question. I would say yes – it actually peaks around the early 30’s then slowly declines. But then again, so does a man’s. What is different between people is the speed of decline. For some, this will be very gradual over the course of many decades and for others it’ll be a matter of years. Everyone is different and the reasons why this happens is pretty much unknown. Maybe diet and lifestyle has an effect on this. I’ve dated some very sexually active women in their 40’s and likewise some very sexually inactive women. Unfortunately for me, the sexually inactive ladies didn’t meet my needs but that’s not to say they won’t meet a guy that has the same level of sexual activeness. People need to meet partners who have the same level of sexual activeness to keep them happy and content. It’s more difficult to define the rate of sexual drive decline however which is why some couples start out so happy and fulfilled but end up unhappy years later because one partner has lost their libido.
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